Dear All,
The drag force applied by fix langevin at T=0 when using metal units is different compared to LJ units. I am unsure how this fits with the definition from the ‘fix langevin’ page where the drag force is F_d=-m*v/g, details below:
Setup:
- 3D domain with 1 atom initialized with velocity (vx,vy,vz)=(0,0,-1) (ps/angstrom or dimensionless in LJ case)
- I apply: fix Langevin with T=0, damping factor, g=1 (ps or dimensionless in LJ case).
- Use fix nve and look at the force at time t=0.
Output:
- Case 1: When using LJ units with m=1, g=1, I get a force of (fx,fy,fx)=(0,0,1). This matches the expected drag force of F_d=-m*v/g, from the ‘fix langevin’ documentation
- Case 2: When using metal units, m=1 (g/mole) , g=1(ps) I get a force of (fx,fy,fx)=(0,0,0.000103643)(ev/Angstrom), I am not sure where this additional factor of 1.03x10^-4 comes from? This may be just my misunderstanding of how to convert these units e.g. how many moles are contained within each sphere which have diameter 1angstrom?
version & platform: LAMMPS (2 Aug 2023), solved using lmp_serial on Apple M2 processor.
Thank you for any help!
Case 2 File (Metal Units)
units metal
atom_style sphere
lattice fcc 3
region mybox block 0 5 0 5 0 5 units lattice
create_box 1 mybox
create_atoms 1 single 1 1 1
set atom * mass 1
set atom * vx 0.0 vy 0.0 vz -1.0
fix 1 all langevin 0 0 1 8927 omega no # apply langevin damping
fix 2 all nve
timestep 0.001
compute 1 all property/atom fx fy fz radius mass
dump 1 all custom 1 dump.solution id x y z vx vy vz c_1[*]
run 8